Arsenal and Chelsea have both reignited their interest in Kenan Yıldız as they monitor his situation at Juventus, per JuveFC Sources. The Premier League clubs have reportedly re-engaged in discussions to assess whether a move for the player is possible in this transfer window.
Yıldız is highly rated by Juventus, who have made it clear that the player is not for sale. Despite interest from England, the Italian club remain determined to retain him and has reportedly placed a valuation of around €100 million on the forward. It is understood that offers in the region of €70 million could be given some consideration, but for now, there is no indication that Juventus intend to sell.
Premier League clubs remain attentive
Both Premier League sides are aware of the talent Yıldız possesses and the potential value he could bring to their squads. However, despite contact being made with those close to the player, there has been no indication that Yıldız is looking to force an exit from Juventus. He remains loyal to the Bianconeri and is not expected to push for a move during this window.
Juventus are working to strengthen its position further by planning a contract extension that could tie the player to the club until 2030 or 2031. This is intended to signal their commitment to Yıldız and to ward off any ongoing interest from other European clubs.
Juventus view Yıldız as a key figure
Yıldız is not only seen as an important player in the team’s technical plans, but also plays a significant role in the club’s long-term marketing strategy. Juventus view him as a central figure for the future and wants to build around his abilities on and off the pitch.
While interest from the Premier League remains, the stance from Juventus is clear. Unless there is a drastic change in circumstances, the player will continue his development in Turin, with the Italian giants confident that he will remain part of their project for the years to come.
